Hebrews 1:8-14, Is the Son called God? Did Jesus create the heavens?

Below are summary notes for Part 2 of our study of chapter 1 of the Book of Hebrews. In the first episode we examined Hebrews 1:1-7. In this episode we examine Hebrews 1:8-14.

To hear the podcast, click here,
or find One God Report on your podcast platform.



We note that the word “saying”, or “he says” which appears in English translations in Hebrews 1:8 is not in the Greek text. The Greek is only "of the Son". 

The speaker of the words quoted from Psalm 45 is not God, but the Psalmist. Adding “he says” or “saying” to Hebrews 1:8 makes it sound, incorrectly, that God is calling the Son, “God”. But the speaker at this point is not God. The speaker is the Psalmist who shows honor to the Israelite/Judean king.

Hebrews 1:8-9 is a quote from Psalm 45, which is a marriage hymn addressed to a king descended from David (perhaps Solomon, or Hezekiah?). The Davidic king has a God who has blessed him (45:2) and anointed him (45:7). The Davidic king is lauded for his strength and just rule (45:2-6). Part of the reason the Psalmist lauds the king is to convince a princess, addressed in the latter part of the Psalm, that it will be worthwhile and a blessing to marry the righteous king.

Most English translations translate the word “God” in the first part of the quote from Psalm 45 in Hebrews 1:8 as:
“Your throne, O God, is forever and ever”; that is, taking the word “God” as a vocative, or as a direct address, understanding that in some way the king in Psalm 45 was called “God”, and by extension, that Jesus the Son was called God.

But the “O” of “O God” is only interpretation. Grammatically it is possible, even preferable, to translate Hebrews 1:8a as:
“Your throne is God forever and ever”,
or,
“God is your throne for ever and ever.”

That is, the word “God/Elohim” in the verse does not have to be understood as a vocative, but as either the subject or predicate of the declaration.

Note an alternate translation given in the RSV: “God is thy throne forever and ever”.
And, compare the JPS translation: “Thy throne given of God is for ever and ever”.

Since Hebrew has no present tense forms of “be” (am, are, is), and neither does the Greek of either Psalm 45 or Hebrews 1:8 supply the present tense, there is ambiguity as to where “is” belongs in the sentence. In the podcast, we note a couple grammatical reasons, and one theological reason, that translating Psalm 45:6 and Hebrews 1:8 is preferable as “Your throne is God”.

We also note some grammatical parallels to interpreting Psalm 45:6, and therefor Hebrews 1:8 as “Your throne is God”:

Psalm 18:1 “Yahweh is my strength”. יְהוָה חִזְקִי
Psalm 18:2 “Yahweh is my rock and my fortress” יְהוָה סַלְעִי וּמְצוּדָתִי
Psalm 16:5 “Yahweh is the portion of my inheritance, and my cup” יְהוָה מְנָת-חֶלְקִי וְכוֹסִי

Speaking to Yahweh, Psalm 73:1-3” “…you are my rock and my fortress.”

And especially, the very similar grammatical construction in Psalm 73:26 “My portion is God forever”. חֶלְקִי אֱלֹהִים לְעוֹלָם

If God can metaphorically be the anointed king’s cup or rock, why can’t God metaphorically be the throne of the anointed king? This is metaphorical, poetic language used to express a truth.

As the Psalmist says “God is my portion”, “God is my Rock”, “God is my fortress”, “God is my refuge”, here the Psalmist says of the anointed Davidic king, “God is your throne”. “Throne” represents the kingly authority to rule. “Your authority as king is God”, “Your authority to rule is God-ordained – forever”. God is your authority to rule forever.” The only God-ordained eternal monarchy (throne) on the earth is the Davidic monarchy. God has exalted a human descendant of David to His right hand. His kingdom will not end because it is of God.

Another parallel, and perhaps what both the Psalmist and writer of Hebrews are referring to, is 2 Sam. 7:13, “I will establish the throne of his kingdom forever”וכֹנַנְתִּי אֶת-כִּסֵּא מַמְלַכְתּוֹ עַד-עוֹלָם

The next verse, 2 Sam. 7:14 is “I will be his Father. He will be my son”, which is also quoted in Hebrews 1 (verse 5)
The father designates who the son is that will inherit the throne. God gives it to Jesus, and by extension, the Israelites ("Israel is my first-born son), and by even further extension, humanity (Jesus and Israel represent humanity before God).

It is God’s throne, or authority and power to rule, that is eternal, and God has placed a human being (as God’s representative) on that throne. This is what God planned for mankind (Genesis 1:26-27) and to some extant is exactly what happened when Solomon became king. David says, “Yehovah…has chosen Solomon my son to sit upon the throne of the kingdom of Yehovah…He (Yehovah) said to me ‘I have chosen him (Solomon) to be my son, and I will be his father” (1 Chron. 28:5-6). “Then Solomon sat on the throne of Yehovah as king instead of David his father” (1 Chron. 29:23).

Saying "God is my rock" portrays strength or stability.
Saying "God is your throne" communicates:
1) divinely given authority, and 2) the eternality of the rule.

We also note that the king being spoken of in Hebrews 1:8, has a God, as seen in Hebrews 1:9. It is absurd to think that the king is God, and because this king-God loved righteousness and hated lawlessness, another God, the king-God's God, anointed the king-God with the oil of gladness beyond his fellows (presumably other Gods?). How many "God/gods" would this make in Hebrews 1:9? A minimum of 4 (God, the king-God, and the king's God-companions). The Bible states clearly that there is only one God. So if this king has a God, the king is not that only God.

Hebrews 1:10-14
In Hebrews 1:10-12, the author quotes a portion of Psalm 102:25-26 which describes Yahweh Elohim as the creator of the heavens and earth. Even though God might roll up the heavens like a garment, and they be changed, God stays the same. He is eternal.

We ask the question why the author of Hebrews quotes this Psalm about the eternality of Yahweh, the One who changes the heavens. We find the answer in Hebrews 1:13: “He”, that is, Yahweh Elohim who created the universe and doesn’t change, has not said to an angel “Sit at my right hand, until I make your enemies a footstool for your feet”. Indeed, as has been stated earlier, the eternal Creator God has said to a human being, "Sit at my right hand." It is a human being, Jesus the Son of God, at the eternal God’s right hand.

The speaker of Psalm 102:25-26 (and quoted by Hebrews 1:10-12) is not Yahweh, but is the psalmist acknowledging who Yahweh is.

We also note that there is no way the author of the book of Hebrews was a Trinitarian. No where does the word “God” mean the Trinity in this book. The word “God” is always the one God, the Father. The only disputed occurrence is Hebrews 1:8, but we’ve already shown another preferable way to understand the quote from Psalm 45.

Trinitarian and “deity of Christ” claims hang grand theological claims on an obscure verse here and an obscure verse there while ignoring the entire book. The one less clear verse in Hebrews 1:8 is touted as one of the main evidences in the New Testament that Jesus is God! If the author of Hebrews was a trinitarian, or believed in the “deity of Christ”, do we really think he wouldn’t have explained so, not just implied it in one or two ambiguous verses, and then totally contradicted himself in so many other verses that state explicitly that Jesus is a man, now exalted to God’s right hand? No where else in the Book of Hebrews does the author say that Jesus is God.

“Deity of Christ” claims consistently create their theology on a less clear verse here or there, and ignore many, many clear Scriptures that directly contradict their claims.

Comments

Carlos Xavier said…
Thanks Bill,

Even though the Hebrew lacks the vocative form (“O God”) both the LXX and NT Greek nonetheless confirm the almost universal vocative reading, i.e., “Your throne, O God.” This is further supported by the fact that the accentuation in the Hebrew points to a pause between the words “throne” and “God.” And as far as I know the textual tradition of the text in both Hebrew and Greek took “God” as direct address.
Lastly, if the writer meant “your throne is God” the Greek conjunction DE (“But about” or “unto”) loses its antithetical meaning, i.e., such a statement could also be made to apply to the angels.
For more see Wallace, Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics; Harris, Jesus as God.

Correct me if I’m wrong but you seem to be saying Heb. 1:10-12 is referring to Yahweh, the Father..?
This ancient Socinian interpretation destroys the overall theme by the write of the contrast between the Son and angels. For example, note the first contrast between the Son and angels in v.7 “And” and v.8 “But.”
So to suddenly switch to the Father in contrast to the angels in vv10-12; v13 breaks the theme.
Of course God has put all creation under His Son. But the subject is “your enemies” not creation itself! Hence the wider context in Heb. 2, “all things” in creation are subject to the Son.
For more see my rebuttal of this interpretation by Bro. Kel: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=YCryEyA5nnI
Anonymous said…
I read with interest your remarks, and would respectfully suggest the following. The quotations from verse 5 onward are statements by God. Verse 5: "You are My Son" and again, "I [God] will be a Father to him." Verse 6, "When He brings the firstborn into the world He [God] says..." In verse 7, in contrast, God says of the angels... and in verse 8, in contrast, the quotation is about the Son -- God being the only speaker in the context.

When we get to verse 10 it is essential to know that the LXX is being quoted from Psalm 102, and the LXX has a completely different sense than the Hebrew. The LXX has God answering the supplicant, addressing him as "lord" (Messiah). Thus these quotations refer to the Son. This was all worked out by F.F. Bruce in his commentary on Hebrews. "That our author understood this quotation from Psalm 102 as an utterance of God seems plain, from the way in which it is linked by the simple conjunction 'and' to the preceding quotation from Psalm 45. Both quotations fall under the same rubric. "But unto the Son He [God] said..."'

I referred to this in Appendix 3 of Jesus Was Not a Trinitarian. It was entirely reasonable that some unitarians, not having access to the Septuagint or the commentaries, were unable to deal with this passage.
Anthony Buzzard said…
I read with interest your remarks, and would respectfully suggest the following. The quotations from verse 5 onward are statements by God. Verse 5: "You are My Son" and again, "I [God] will be a Father to him." Verse 6, "When He brings the firstborn into the world He [God] says..." In verse 7, in contrast, God says of the angels... and in verse 8, in contrast, the quotation is about the Son -- God being the only speaker in the context.

When we get to verse 10 it is essential to know that the LXX is being quoted from Psalm 102, and the LXX has a completely different sense than the Hebrew. The LXX has God answering the supplicant, addressing him as "lord" (Messiah). Thus these quotations refer to the Son. This was all worked out by F.F. Bruce in his commentary on Hebrews. "That our author understood this quotation from Psalm 102 as an utterance of God seems plain, from the way in which it is linked by the simple conjunction 'and' to the preceding quotation from Psalm 45. Both quotations fall under the same rubric. "But unto the Son He [God] said..."'

I referred to this in Appendix 3 of Jesus Was Not a Trinitarian. It was entirely reasonable that some unitarians, not having access to the Septuagint or the commentaries, were unable to deal with this passage.
Rob Bjerk said…
Bill, I believe understanding the logical structure of Hebrews 1 is very important to a
proper understanding of Verse 10 (and 13). This link explains how "legei" is mistakenly translated (or understood to be implied) as "He said" when God is not the speaker. The Greek "legei" can just as well be "she said" or "it said" ("it" being the law or scripture). This link takes you to the written argument for this understanding, but watch the video at the bottom of the page for a clear, and I think, convincing, detailed exposition. http://www.angelfire.com/space/thegospeltruth/TTD/verses/hebrews1_7.html
Anonymous said…
Paul clearly says Jesus is greater than the angels of God... and that the Angels worship the Son. Why would angels worship a man other than their creator?
Jesus says he has authority over heaven and earth who can claim that except God alone?
Paul says Jesus's name is exalted above all why would any name besides God be exalted above all?
Paul says every knee in heaven and earth will bow to him yet only God has this power how can Jesus?
John says without the Word(Jesus) nothing would have been made yet Jesus is not God?
Jesus claims he was pre-existent in Johns's Gospel Paul also affirms this in his Gospel.
Paul says to be saved we need to believe in Jesus why would I need to believe in Jesus to be saved?
Who do the Angels of God worship and serve God alone so why do they also Worship and serve Jesus?
Why baptize in a name other than the Father?
Why bow down to anyone but God?
Bill Schlegel said…
Anonymous, Hi. You are denying that Jesus is a human when you say "why bow down to anyone but God". You may want to study the Hebrew and Greek words for "bow down" and "worship" in the Bible, and see who is bowed down to and worshipped.

Any good Bible program can help. Here are some articles and podcasts that discuss "worship".

http://www.onegodreport.com/jesus_is_worshipped_he_must_be_god

Carlos Xavier said…
https://youtu.be/NbEuZc0B_Cg

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